This is exactly what seems to have happened with Bryant. He was arguing with his wife (something that happens between happily married couples all the time). Some one saw them from a distance and thought he was beating her and called the cops.

If you got charged, then some form of the charge must be accurate. No?

Huh?
Or in other words, no! You can be charged with anything the police feel like charging you with!

There was definitely negotiation, I mean, there’s no doubt about that. But what Bryant got was nothing — as long as he doesn’t do anything criminal in the next six months, it’s literally nothing. So the natural conclusion is that the prosecutor didn’t think he had any real case. And, in fact, that is what the prosecutor says, pretty explicitly.

He admits that he deserved to get arrested, but what’s not clear is, if the reason the cops were called was justified — was he really choking his wife or there was some form of physical abuse.

If I get accused of something and I have go on probation because of that accusation, then how can a person not make the mental mapping that there was some form of domestic violence there?

I think this is still all blurry to me. And I’m sorry, paint me skeptical. I feel like there was a bit of negotiation here with the D.A and his lawyer, if he didn’t do it then why the probation? If there was no evidence then why does he have to be on probation for that charge? Put him on probation for resisting arrest and keep it moving, if in six months he didn’t do anything then his record is cleared up.

It’ll be interesting to see if he does do something illegal in the next 6 months and what the DA will move forward with on the assault charge.

This kind of stuff can be murky, especially once cops get involved, most cops I’ve talked with often say the hardest emergencies to police are calls of domestic abuse. The person being abused usually turns against the cops.

After reading everything, I really don’t know what to believe. It just all sounds fishy to me.